atrial fibrillation

A 72-year-old female presents with right leg pain and skin changes after starting warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Her INR is 3.5. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations and lightheadedness. He reports that the symptoms started suddenly about an hour ago. He denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, or syncope. His medications include metformin and lisinopril. On examination, he is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is irregularly irregular at 140 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. An ECG is performed, which shows an absence of P waves, irregularly irregular R-R intervals, and narrow QRS complexes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports that the pain started acutely this morning and has been gradually worsening. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. He denies any recent trauma or injury. On examination, his vital signs are: heart rate 110 bpm, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 88% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. The patient is pale and diaphoretic. A chest X-ray was initially performed, followed by the image shown. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 78-year-old female on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of increasing pain and discolouration in her right lower leg. She reports the pain is severe and worsening rapidly. She denies trauma or recent falls. Her INR this morning was 2.5 (target 2.0-3.0). Vital signs are stable: BP 130/80, HR 75, RR 16, Temp 36.8°C. Examination reveals the findings shown in the image. Considering the patient's history, current medication, and the clinical appearance depicted, what is the most appropriate immediate therapeutic intervention?

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. His INR is 7.0. A chest CT is performed (image attached). After initial resuscitation, what is the MOST appropriate intervention?

A 75-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation on warfarin presents to the emergency department with acute onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. His vital signs are stable. His INR is found to be 7.2. A chest CT is performed (image attached). Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate immediate management step?

A 72-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (stage 3) presents with a 2-week history of exertional dyspnea and fatigue. He reports no chest pain but has noticed occasional palpitations. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm (irregularly irregular), respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Cardiovascular examination reveals a variable intensity S1, no S3 or S4, and a soft systolic murmur at the apex. Lung fields are clear. An ECG shows absent P waves and irregularly irregular QRS complexes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with sudden onset of severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He denies trauma. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, medical history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following pharmacological agents is the most appropriate immediate intervention?

A 68-year-old female presents with right leg pain and skin changes after starting warfarin for atrial fibrillation 5 days ago. Her INR is currently 3.5. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) and atrial fibrillation presents to the cardiology clinic for routine follow-up. He reports increased fatigue and occasional palpitations but denies chest pain or syncope. His current medications include lisinopril, carvedilol, furosemide, and digoxin. His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 78 bpm, and he has mild peripheral edema. Recent laboratory tests show a serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL and potassium of 4.5 mmol/L. An echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction of 35%. Considering his current medication regimen and clinical status, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his pharmacological management?

A 72-year-old female on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents with a 2-day history of increasing pain and a developing lesion on her right lower leg. She denies trauma. Her INR is therapeutic at 2.5. Vitals are stable. Considering the clinical presentation and the image provided, what is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 78-year-old man with a history of chronic atrial fibrillation and hypertension presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe pain, numbness, and coldness in his left leg, starting approximately 3 hours ago. He is currently taking aspirin 100mg daily. On examination, his left foot and lower calf are pale and cool to touch. Pedal pulses are absent, popliteal pulse is weak. Sensation is decreased below the ankle, and motor function is preserved but weak. Capillary refill in the toes is delayed. His heart rate is irregularly irregular at 95 bpm, blood pressure 140/85 mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR is currently 6.0. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate initial management step?

A 78-year-old female on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of increasing pain and discolouration in her right lower leg. She reports the pain is severe and worsening rapidly. She denies trauma or recent falls. Her INR this morning was 2.5 (target 2.0-3.0). Vital signs are stable: BP 130/80, HR 75, RR 16, Temp 36.8°C. Examination reveals the findings shown in the image. Considering the patient's history, current medication, and the clinical appearance depicted, the underlying mechanism involves a transient deficiency of which of the following?

A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation is scheduled for elective hip replacement surgery. He is currently on warfarin with a target INR of 2.0-3.0. His INR is 2.5 at the preoperative assessment. What is the most appropriate management of his anticoagulation therapy in preparation for surgery?

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Vitals: T 36.8°C, HR 95, BP 110/70, RR 24, SpO2 92% RA. Exam: decreased breath sounds, dullness right hemithorax. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's presentation, history, and the imaging findings, which is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports a recent fall but denies any significant trauma. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 70-year-old man with known atrial fibrillation presents with sudden onset of severe pain, pallor, and coldness in his left leg. Pulses are absent below the femoral artery. What is the most likely source of the embolus causing this presentation?

An 82-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and a recent hospitalisation for pneumonia was discharged 5 days ago on warfarin 5mg daily. She presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing pain and a rapidly evolving lesion on her right lower leg over the past 48 hours. She denies trauma. Her vital signs are stable: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 16/min, Temp 36.8°C. Physical examination reveals the appearance shown in the image on her right anterior lower leg. Her INR today is 4.5. She has no known history of protein C or S deficiency. Considering the patient's history, current medication, laboratory result, and the clinical appearance depicted, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management strategy?

A 78-year-old female on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of increasing pain and discolouration in her right lower leg. She denies trauma or recent falls. Her INR this morning was 2.5 (target 2.0-3.0). Vital signs are stable: BP 130/80, HR 75, RR 16, Temp 36.8°C. Examination reveals the findings shown in the image. Considering the patient's history, current medication, and the clinical appearance depicted, what is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 70-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden onset of severe pain, pallor, and coldness in his left leg. On examination, the leg is cool below the knee, distal pulses are absent, and sensation is diminished. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic investigation?

A 72-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation and well-controlled hypertension presents with acute onset expressive aphasia and right-sided facial droop. A CT angiogram reveals a posterior cerebral artery aneurysm, which was promptly treated with endovascular coiling. The provided image shows the post-operative angiogram. Despite the intervention, the patient's aphasia persists, and the facial droop has worsened. What is the MOST likely cause of the patient's continued and worsening symptoms?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past two weeks. He reports occasional palpitations but denies chest pain or syncope. On examination, his blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 130 bpm (irregularly irregular), respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Jugular venous pressure is elevated, and there are bilateral lung crackles. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. An echocardiogram reveals moderate mitral regurgitation and left atrial enlargement. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 70-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden onset of severe pain, pallor, and coldness in his left leg, extending below the knee. On examination, the leg is cool to touch, pale, and distal pulses (popliteal, dorsalis pedis, posterior tibial) are absent. Sensation is diminished below the ankle, but he can still move his toes slightly. Capillary refill is delayed. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic investigation?

A 72-year-old woman presents with increasing pain in her right leg. She has been on warfarin for atrial fibrillation for the past 5 days. Her INR is currently 3.5. Examination reveals the findings shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He denies trauma. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, medical history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following interventions is most critical to initiate *before* considering invasive drainage?

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He denies trauma. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, medical history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management strategy?

An 82-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation was recently discharged from hospital following treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. Five days ago, she was commenced on warfarin 5mg daily for stroke prevention. She presents to the emergency department today complaining of severe, rapidly worsening pain and a dark, blistering lesion on her right lower leg that developed over the past 48 hours. She denies any recent trauma to the leg. Her vital signs are stable: blood pressure 132/82 mmHg, heart rate 76 bpm, respiratory rate 18/min, temperature 37.0°C. Physical examination reveals the appearance shown in the image on her right anterior lower leg. Laboratory results show an INR of 4.8, haemoglobin 125 g/L, white cell count 8.5 x 10^9/L, and platelets 250 x 10^9/L. She has no known personal or family history of thrombophilia. Considering the clinical presentation, recent medication changes, and the appearance depicted, which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management strategy?

A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of acute onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly this morning and has been gradually worsening. He has a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, for which he takes warfarin. He denies any recent trauma or injury. On examination, his vital signs are: heart rate 115 bpm, blood pressure 95/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 87% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. The patient appears pale and is diaphoretic. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed, and the relevant image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR is currently 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with sudden onset severe shortness of breath and left-sided pleuritic chest pain that began approximately 4 hours ago. He reports feeling lightheaded and generally unwell. His past medical history includes chronic atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is currently prescribed warfarin 5mg daily, metoprolol 50mg twice daily, perindopril 4mg daily, and metformin 1000mg twice daily. He denies any recent falls, trauma, or invasive procedures. On examination, he is visibly distressed and tachypnoeic. His vital signs are: temperature 36.8°C, heart rate 125 bpm (irregularly irregular), blood pressure 88/55 mmHg, respiratory rate 32 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 85% on room air. Jugular venous pressure is not elevated. Cardiac auscultation reveals a rapid, irregular rhythm with no murmurs. Pulmonary auscultation reveals significantly diminished breath sounds over the entire left hemithorax, with dullness to percussion. The right lung field is clear. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Peripheral pulses are weak but present. His capillary refill time is prolonged at 4 seconds. Initial laboratory results show haemoglobin 135 g/L (baseline 140 g/L three months ago), white cell count 9.2 x 10^9/L, platelets 250 x 10^9/L, creatinine 110 µmol/L, electrolytes within normal limits. His INR is 7.8. An urgent CT scan of the chest is performed, and a representative axial image is shown. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the single MOST appropriate immediate management step?

A 68-year-old woman on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents with increasing pain in her right leg over the past 48 hours. Her INR is 4.0. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A 68-year-old female presents with right leg pain and skin changes after starting warfarin for atrial fibrillation 5 days ago. Her INR is currently 3.5. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old woman on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents with a painful, rapidly expanding lesion on her right lower leg that began two days ago, shortly after her warfarin dose was increased. Her vital signs are stable, and her INR is within the therapeutic range. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate immediate management?

An 82-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and a recent hospitalisation for pneumonia was discharged 5 days ago on warfarin 5mg daily. She presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing pain and a rapidly evolving lesion on her right lower leg over the past 48 hours. She denies trauma. Her vital signs are stable: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 16/min, Temp 36.8°C. Physical examination reveals the appearance shown in the image on her right anterior lower leg. Her INR today is 4.5. She has no known history of protein C or S deficiency. Considering the patient's history, current medication, laboratory result, and the clinical appearance depicted, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management strategy?

A 75-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He is hypotensive with a BP of 90/60 mmHg and tachycardic at 110 bpm. His INR is 7.2. A chest CT is performed (image attached). Considering the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate immediate management step?

A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute confusion and weakness on the right side of her body. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on warfarin for anticoagulation. Her INR is 3.5. On examination, she is disoriented to time and place, with a right-sided facial droop and hemiparesis. A CT scan of the head shows a left-sided intracerebral hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 75-year-old woman on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of rapidly worsening pain and discolouration in her right lower leg. She denies trauma. Her INR is 2.8. Physical examination reveals the findings shown in the image. Peripheral pulses are palpable. What is the most appropriate immediate management step?